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FRCPath Haem Part 1 MCQs-Oncology 481

Sep 2
1 min read

A 61-year-old man is diagnosed with systemic primary AL amyloidosis.

Investigations show:

  • Bone marrow plasma cells: 8% 

  • Serum free light chains: markedly abnormal

  • dFLC: 185 mg/L 

  • Serum paraprotein: 3 g/L

  • NT-proBNP: moderately elevated

  • Troponin-T: mildly elevated

  • Echocardiogram: increased ventricular wall thickness with preserved ejection fraction

  • eGFR: 68 mL/min/1.73 m²

  • No significant peripheral neuropathy

  • No significant gastrointestinal or respiratory involvement

He is otherwise fit and has no major comorbidities.


Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial treatment?


A. High-dose melphalan followed immediately by autologous stem-cell transplantation

B. Daratumumab + bortezomib + cyclophosphamide + dexamethasone (Dara-VCD)

C. Lenalidomide + dexamethasone

D. Melphalan + dexamethasone alone

E. Pomalidomide + dexamethasone


 
 
 

1 Comment


Correct answer: B. Daratumumab + bortezomib + cyclophosphamide + dexamethasone (Dara-VCD)

Explanation


Dara-VCD is the standard first-line approach for most newly diagnosed systemic AL amyloidosis patients requiring treatment.


The rationale is:

  • AL amyloidosis requires rapid suppression of the pathogenic plasma-cell clone.

  • Organ improvement generally lags behind the haematological response, sometimes by many months.

  • Therefore, achieving a rapid deep clonal response is crucial.

  • Daratumumab + VCD has become the established first-line regimen following the ANDROMEDA trial.

  • NICE approved daratumumab with VCD for newly diagnosed systemic AL amyloidosis in the UK.


Why not autologous transplant?

Although high-dose melphalan with autologous stem-cell transplantation can produce very deep responses, it is reserved for carefully selected, transplant-eligible patients.


The exam trap is that this patient…


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